I recently read that translations from Old Testament Hebrew to Greek to English has altered the meaning of some text. For example, the OT prophecy about the virgin is actually the word for woman in Hebrew and not virgin. That significantly changes the meaning. Please help.
Unfortunately, the church has seen a rise in false and misleading teaching related to overemphasizing or manipulating the meaning of Greek and Hebrew words in an effort to support conjecture and false teaching. This is one such example.
The text of Isaiah says:
In this well-known verse, Isaiah foretold that the Messiah would come from a virgin birth. The Hebrew word translated as virgin in that verse is almah, which is the customary Hebrew word for an unmarried (hence, virginal) young woman. The Hebrew word for a married woman is ishah, which is a different word. So Hebrew makes a clear distinction between a virginal woman and a married woman.
Therefore, any claim that the Hebrew word for virgin in Isaiah 7:14 is translated wrongly because it means woman is a misleading and ultimately false charge. On the contrary, the Hebrew word used in that verse is the customary expression for an unmarried woman, which confirms the translation.
Those who are suggesting that the word does not mean virgin are either under the influence of false teaching or are consciously seeking to spread lies to undermine the Gospel. In either case, you should avoid such people: