How did Jesus, being born of a woman but not a man, avoid the curse on sin? Didn't Mary come from a man and woman, so that she carried the curse in her flesh? Or did Jesus not share in her flesh…was she just like a surrogate mother who carried him in pregnancy?
The word of God says the sin nature of humanity transfers from one generation to another through the reproductive process:
Spiritually speaking, our sin nature is passed through the man (i.e., the "seed"). David confirms that sin passes to us in the moment of conception:
But since Christ was formed in Mary’s womb by the Holy Spirit, and not by the seed of men, He did not possess a sin nature. We see evidence of this distinction in Genesis 3 where the Lord foretold the virgin birth of the Messiah:
The mention of a woman's seed is a reference to the Holy Spirit's conception of Jesus within Mary. He Importantly, a woman doesn't possess "seed" in the Bible's sense of that word, and yet here the Bible says the Messiah will be conceived by a woman's "seed," which is intentional to make the point that the Messiah would not be conceived in the normal way (I,.e., by a man's seed) but rather would be conceived in a woman without the help of a man.
Furthermore, there is no evidence that any material from Joseph or Mary was used in the conception of Jesus or passed to Jesus, according to Luke:
The sense of the text was that the Holy Spirit conceived the child inside Mary. Conception naturally involves a man and woman, but since Mary was a virgin the normal process was not used to conceive Jesus. He was formed like the original Adam: by God directly. Mary essentially became a surrogate mother carrying the child, but her body did not conceive the child.
So since Jesus wasn't conceived by the seed of men or even by the body of Mary, He did not posses original sin, which is passed to us through the normal conception process, and therefore Jesus didn't inherit the sin of Adam.